Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 02.07.2025 02:01
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Why do people stay in cults after they have joined?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Are people who cite the 2nd Amendment honestly familiar with what it establishes?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.